1 John 3:5
What is written? (ESV)
You know that he appeared to take away sins, and in him there is no sin.
What does it say?
Jesus appeared to take away sins and Himself had no sin.
What is its immediate context?
John is stating the case for fellow believers to continue in the love of God, here reminding them of the contrast between those that practice sin (e.g. “lawlessness” vs 4) and those that have accepted Jesus and been cleansed of their sin. The objective John’s letter is to encourage Christians to continue to “practice the truth” and “walk in the light” (1 Jn 1:6,7). Throughout it, John refers to believers as those who are “born of God”. (2:29, 3:9, 4:7, 5:1, 4) It’s a phrase that he actually introduces in his gospel where he opens, “But to all who did receive him [Jesus], who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.” (Jn 1:12-13)
How 1 John 3:5 is applied across Bible answers
Did Jesus sin?
There is "no sin" in Jesus.
What is the remedy for sin?
Jesus came to take away sins.


