Preterism is a Christian doctrine teaching that the second coming of Jesus and all Bible promises occurred by or before AD70. Among other things, several that the Bible Study Framework addresses, it requires a Christian to take a position that a New Testament writer must always quote an Old Testament prophecy in context. In other words, when a New Testament writer quotes any Old Testament prophecy, the NT writer is not at liberty to alter the quotation’s application in any way.

This is the position taken at a public debate in 2020 by one affirming this position. The following quotes are from Holger Neubauer arguing that “the Scriptures teach…Jesus of Nazareth returned for the second and final time in the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70”:

  • Night One/Hour 0/Minute 51 – “When a New Testament writer quotes from an Old Testament text, they always quote in context(a). They never make up new meanings(b); they fulfill the meaning of what the Old Testament prophet had in mind(c).”
  • Night One/Hour 2/Minute 15 – “He’s quoting in context. He’s [Paul’s] not making up some new meaning(b). He’s quoting in context….A New Testament author always quotes in context.(a)“ (when speaking about Romans 11:25-27 quoting Isaiah 27)
  • Night Two/Hour 0/Minute 38 – “Hear me well: When a New Testament writer quotes from an Old Testament text, they always quoted in context(a). We have no more liberty to think they took a text out of context than we do to take a New Testament text out of context.” (when arguing that Hosea 6:2 is quoted by Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:4)

How Scripture answers "Must a New Testament writer always quote in context?"

A New Testament writer does not1245 always quote in the context of the original Old Testament text (which is not to say it’s out of context for the Bible – God’s word – as a whole). There are many other examples of this, including Jesus with the lawyer6, but when “always” is the standard we need not go further to disprove it. The clear and poignant cases with Matthew12, Peter4, and Paul5 do not preserve the original context of the prophet’s statement(a) and give an entirely new meaning(b). The very two things respectively that the preterist says must “always”(a) and “never”(b) happen.

Furthermore, there are some issues with the preterits’s fundamental approach to the prophets. Based on what Peter affirms3 about the prophets:

  1. These statements originally made by the prophets1245 are not simply something that the “prophet has in mind”(c). The prophets were literal spokesmen for God, speaking God’s mind…not their own.
  2. While their words, or rather God’s, would be pertinent to their time, they would not (and apparently could not) understand their ultimate meaning unless and until it was revealed in the “good news” of an inspired writer(c). Holger Neubauer says that “They [NT writers] never make up new meanings; they fulfill the meaning of what the OT prophet had in mind.” But God says3 the OT prophet did not know the meaning even though “they searched and inquired.”3

The preterist would do well to heed the precedent set forth in scripture when it comes to interpreting prophecy!

Answer built on scripture-blocks below

Applying Matthew 1:21-23 to this question...

Matthew, a New Testament writer, recounts an angel of God quoting Isaiah’s prophecy and applies it to the birth of Jesus.

Extra Context for this Application:

Isaiah’s prophecy, in its original context, is about the birth of boy that would be a sign for Ahaz, king of Judah, that God will not allow Ephraim (e.g. Israel), who is in league with Syria, come against Judah.

Applying Matthew 2:14-15 to this question...

Matthew, a New Testament writer, takes a mid-sentence statement from Hosea’s commentary about Israel and applies it to Jesus.

Extra Context for this Application:

Hosea’s prophecy, in its original context of the entire chapter 11, is very clearly about physical Israel. In fact, the surrounding statements in no way contemplate Jesus, “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son. The more they were called, the more they went away; they kept sacrificing to the Baals and burning offerings to idols.”

Applying 1 Peter 1:10-12 to this question...

Prophets prophesied about “the grace” (e.g. Jesus Christ) without knowing they were prophesying about it.

Extra Context for this Application:

They “searched and inquired carefully”…without answer, since the preceding verses make it clear it wasn’t until the “last time” (e.g. Peter’s audience in the first century and us today) that it was revealed (e.g. answered).

Applying Acts 1:18-20 to this question...

The apostles connect two statements from David in the Psalms with events surrounding the death of Judas and his replacement.

Extra Context for this Application:

Peter (vs 16) identifies two statements originally made by David. In their original context, David is writing about his enemies in both Psalms 69 and 109. The “his” in David’s context refers to his personal enemy(ies), while in Peter’s context it’s Judas.

Applying Ephesians 4:7-8 to this question...

Paul quotes a psalm of David and applies it to Christ.

Extra Context for this Application:

In the original context of Psalm 68, David is speaking of God the Father and actually says that God was “…receiving gifts of men.” Paul not only applies this to Christ, but in so doing, changes it to, “he gave gifts to men.”

Applying Luke 10:25-28 to this question...

Jesus affirms the lawyer’s application of two verses from the Mosaic Law to addressing the question of how one inherits eternal life.

Extra Context for this Application:

Neither of the quotations the lawyer uses to answer the question of inheriting eternal life come from original contexts having anything to do with inheriting enteral life.

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