Has the God of the universe changed over time? Is God’s character subject to “evolving” the same way that you and I would develop over time? God’s character not changing is sometimes described as the immutability of God (defined by Dictionary.com as “not mutable; unchangeable; changeless”).

However, some struggle with this question. For example, they may see the Old Testament and the New Testament as depicting two very different Gods. They conclude, as a result, that God’s character must have changed (which plays in to a certain type Scripture Weighting). So, there is a lot hinging on this question. If God’s character has changed over time, it opens the door to questioning the very authority of the Bible.

how Scripture answers "Does God’s character change?"

God doesn’t change2,5. His character and promises are constant1,6 as well as His word5. His unchanging nature is something Christians should cherish4. As in the case of Job3, it requires us to move toward Him (vs Him toward us) in how we think, reason and rationalize events in our life, knowing that He is constant6 and His word is sure5.

the answer above is based on and footnoted with the following Scripture Blocks
1

So when God desired to show more convincingly to the heirs of the promise the unchangeable character of his purpose, he guaranteed it with an oath, so that by two unchangeable things, in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have fled for refuge might have strong encouragement to hold fast to the hope set before us.

God’s promise and purpose have an “unchangeable character” and that God cannot lie (“it is impossible”). For these reasons a believer/Christian should not lose hope.

The entire book of Hebrews is about “holding fast” and not losing faith or “falling away.” In this immediate context the writer is providing evidence/reasons why the Christian should remain faithful. The very next verse describes Him as a “sure and steadfast anchor.”

How does it inform?

God’s purpose has an “unchangeable character.” While it doesn’t explicitly say that God Himself does not change, the inference is certainly there.

Does it apply? Yes

2

For I the Lord do not change; therefore you, O children of Jacob, are not consumed.

“I the Lord do not change,” therefore the children of Jacob are not consumed.

Through the prophet Malachi, God makes a declaration about Himself.

How does it inform?

A direct statement by God that he doesn’t change.

Does it apply? Yes

3

But he is unchangeable, and who can turn him back? What he desires, that he does.

Speaking about God, Job says that “he is unchangeable.”  He does whatever He desires.

Job is trying to reconcile his recent tragedies and misfortunes to himself while also defending charges of disobedience and “punishment from God” from his friends.

How does it inform?

Certainly, some of what’s recorded by Job and his friends as “facts” and reality are later debunked by God in the book, but this statement by Job is not one of them.

Does it apply? Yes

4

Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever.

Jesus is the same yesterday, today and forever.

Still within the context of the book of Hebrews and the overall theme of “holding fast.”

How does it inform?

Jesus, and by extension God, are constant and unchanging.

Does it apply? Yes

5

Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights with whom there is no variation or shadow due to change.

Every good and perfect gift comes down from the Father of lights who doesn’t vary due to change.

James is speaking about the “perfect law of liberty” – God’s word – and being doers and not just hearers of it.  It’s God’s word that is the “good” and “perfect” gift in the context.  His point is that God’s word is perfect (complete) and unchanging because it is from God, who is also perfect and unchanging.

How does it inform?

God, as the Father of lights in this reference, illustrates His unchanging nature.

Does it apply? Yes

6
God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” And he said, “Say this to the people of Israel: ‘I AM has sent me to you.’”
God called Himself “I am who I am” to Moses and told him to tell the people of Israel that ‘”I am” has sent me to you.’
God is calling Moses – born a Hebrew but lived life as an Egyptian prince – to lead His people out of Egyptian bondage.
How does it inform?

In referring to Himself as “I AM”, God introduces man to His timeless, eternal reality in which He was, is and will be forever.

Does it apply? Yes

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If you know of some other verses or you have something to add to the verses already listed for this question please leave a comment below! We welcome the public discussion and will incorporate your input into the Framework above. We have nothing to hide and invite your help in considering all that God’s word has to say.

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