Free will: “Whether free will exists, what it is and the implications of whether it exists or not are some of the longest-running debates of philosophy and religion.” This is well-stated from Wikipedia. A search on “free will” brings all kinds of philosophical debates, opinions and definitions.

For our purposes, we simply want to examine what Scripture says about our free will to decide for ourselves about anything, but in particular, about deciding on our own to obey God. Can we exercise free will in choosing to turn from sin and follow Him?

How Scripture answers "Does man have free will?"

Man does have free will to choose a path of good/righteousness.12359101516171821 God has put the option to “know him” in front of all mankind.2391118 At a certain age everyone is accountable,15 and God, the Father, wishes that everyone respond569 to the call – like a father does with his children.101419 Unfortunately, not all will,78161719 and some may even choose it and then fall back.12132021

It’s tough to limit the passages that speak to mankind’s free will. For example, the many passages that teach we will be judged by our works all assume that man has free will to choose. There’s nothing clearer than in God’s direct words.129 To say we don’t have free will makes God a liar129151617…it makes Jesus disingenuous361319 and any instruction on prayer meaningless11…and it makes the apostles and their message ridiculous.4510142021 Statements like the one in Jeremiah7 are pulled out of context to argue we don’t have free will, but the entire message of the Bible assumes its reader is a free moral agent from beginning,12 to end,6 and all the pages in between.34589101112131415161718192021

Answer built on scripture-blocks below

Applying Genesis 2:16-17 to this question...

God established a rule in the Garden of Eden that Adam (and later Eve) could choose to obey or disregard.

Applying Genesis 4:6-7 to this question...

God told Cain he could choose to “do well” and that he “must rule over” sin’s opposing desire.

Applying Matthew 28:19-20 to this question...

The “Great Commission” from Jesus is premised on the idea that “all nations” (e.g. everyone) have free will to “observe” (or not to observe).

Applying Acts 2:37-39 to this question...

Peter instructs the crowd to repent (turn) and be baptized for the forgiveness of their sins. He gives them a choice to make of their own free will.

Applying 1 Timothy 2:3-4 to this question...

If God’s sovereignty is absolute, then God would not need to “desire” that everybody be saved.

Applying Revelation 22:17 to this question...

The invitation is open to anyone who “desires” to “take the water of life”.

Applying Jeremiah 13:23 to this question...

This passage doesn’t apply since the point here is that the people had fallen so far into sin and were so “accustomed to do evil” that it would be nearly impossible to repent and turn away (e.g. “change his skin”).

Extra Context for this Application:

God warned them during Isaiah’s day,17 and now about 100 years later told Jeremiah that the people of Judah had grown even more sinful than “Faithless Israel” (Jer 3:11) and they were not going to listen to him (Jer 7:27) — but God still sent him to preach repentance to them, and God finally has had enough declaring, “behold, every one of you follows his stubborn, evil will, refusing to listen to me.” (Jer 16:10-12)

Applying 2 Thessalonians 2:11-12 to this question...

God, Himself, may allow/permit/provoke someone who is already intent on taking “pleasure in unrighteousness”.

Extra Context for this Application:

These are people who have “refused to love the truth and so be saved” (vs 10).

Applying Deuteronomy 30:15-18 to this question...

God set before the people to choose good or evil, and He proceeds to instruct how they might accomplish either path.

Extra Context for this Application:

Joshua later repeats this thought and declares his choice before the people.18

Applying 1 Thessalonians 2:11-12 to this question...

Our relationship with God is like children to a Father. A father can be an example, train, encourage, and charge, but not force their children’s will.

Applying Matthew 7:7-8 to this question...

If man did not have free will, why would Jesus instruct His disciples to “ask”, “seek” and “knock” to a God already aware of their needs?

Extra Context for this Application:

More specifically, and in the broader context of Jesus’ sermon, why would anyone need to pray?

Applying Hebrews 6:4-6 to this question...

A situation is described where those who have been saved can choose to “crucify once again the Son of God” by their actions.

Applying Matthew 24:24 to this question...

Jesus says that “even the elect” could be led astray by false teachers/false prophets (“false christs” or antichrists).

Applying Philippians 2:12-13 to this question...

Paul instructs Christians to do their part in their salvation while reminding them that God works in them. Unless Paul contradicts himself mid-sentence, he means that God works in them to support their own free will (not over-ruling it).

Applying Isaiah 7:15-16 to this question...

God acknowledges a time at which a young person can choose between good and evil.

Applying Ezekiel 3:27 to this question...

The people could either obey or refuse God’s message through Ezekiel, and indeed, most would refuse.

Applying Isaiah 1:18-20 to this question...

God puts forth the binary conditions of man, either being “willing” to obey Him, or refusing and rebelling.

Extra Context for this Application:

We see what eventually happened to Isaiah’s audience in Jeremiah’s day.7 Most did not listen, and they were swept away by the Babylonians.

Applying Joshua 24:14-15 to this question...

Joshua believes that man has a choice in who he will serve, and essentially repeats what God had already told them just before they had begun the conquest of the land.9

Applying Luke 13:34-35 to this question...

Jesus states His intent for Jerusalem to be saved, but they were not willing.

Applying 2 Peter 2:20-21 to this question...

A very similar statement to what the Hebrews writer states,12 describing a condition in which a person has chosen a path of righteousness and then turned back and rejected it.

Extra Context for this Application:

In this context, the “they/them” could go back to vs 1 (a false teacher), or be those that have listened to the false teacher, or more likely, both.

Applying 2 Timothy 2:10-13 to this question...

God’s sovereignty and man’s free will are two immutable facts. The “elect” (e.g. saved) can deny God by becoming “faithless”.

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