What Christian’s believe and how they have come to understand what the Bible teaches isn’t always shaped purely by Scripture. The Ancient Greek influence of Gnosticism has had a profound and enduring effect on Christian thought. Indeed, that may be the case in needing to ask the question, “For whom did Christ die?”
This question often gets raised in the broader context of popular teachings by prominent Christian preachers and philosophers from the past. For example, one’s conclusion that Scripture advocates for a “limited atonement” of man (e.g. Christ only died for some) would be a natural, almost forced, conclusion if you already believed that only some were eligible (“Unconditional Election”) to be saved by God.
So, how does Scripture quantify those for whom Christ died?
How Scripture answers "For whom did Christ die?"
Jesus died for all mankind – everyone3,11, the world/universe1,4,6,10, all people2,8, the unrighteous5 – different ways to say the same thing. Scripture teaches the full atonement of Christ. Since God “so loved the world”1 and wants all to be saved9,13, why would he send his only son to die for just some? He wouldn’t, which is just as Jesus states1, Paul states2,8, Peter states 5, and John states4,6,11 — all quite plainly.
There are two clear truths taught in all of these passages: (1) Jesus Christ came for all in order to save all1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, and (2) not all will obey1,2,4,6,8,10,11,12,13 necessarily inferring man’s free will. The two are mutually exclusive Bible facts; both truths can and do exist at the same time.
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