Dual fulfillment in prophecy is something that Wikipedia defines as a, “mainly Christian idea that some prophecies in the Bible have both a short-term and long-term fulfillment.” We see this in the Bible and know they have a “short-term” and “long-term” fulfillment because an inspired writer is interpreting it to be so.

In other words, the prophetic statement originally made (the “short-term”) has a meaning and application relevant to the time that it was originally spoken by the prophet. It’s only when an inspired writer takes (or actually “lifts”) the statement out of its original context and applies it in a new and different context (the “long-term”).  This is what constitutes a dual fulfillment in prophecy.

how Scripture answers "What are five examples of dual fulfillment in prophecy?"

These1,2,3,4,5 are the five best examples of dual fulfillment in prophecy. In each case, the original speaker/prophet (Moses1, Nathan2, David3, Isaiah4, and Hosea5) makes a statement contextually relevant to their day and time. It is only through the inspired writers’ application (Peter1, writer of Hebrews2,3, Matthew4,5) that we can understand their dual, future application.

the answer above is based on and footnoted with the following Scripture Blocks

The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers—it is to him you shall listen—

God is going to raise up a prophet to whom they should all listen.

God speaking to Moses before Moses’ death and the people enter the Promised Land.  This verse, in particular, is quoted by Peter in his sermon in Acts 3:22  and referenced by Stephen in Acts 7:37, 52 – each of them in their full context interpreting this to be Jesus Christ.

How does it inform?

Moses’ statement applies to the people about to enter the Promised Land. About 1,500 years later it is applied by Peter to apply to the one they had just crucified – Jesus.

Does it apply? Yes

I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son. When he commits iniquity, I will discipline him with the rod of men, with the stripes of the sons of men,
I [God] will be a father to him [Solomon], and he shall be my son.  When he sins, I will correct him with the rod and stripes of men,

A key passage of the Old Testament when God, through the prophet Nathan, makes His covenant with David. David wants to build the temple of God in Jerusalem, but God tells him not to – that his son will do it.  It’s an inescapable example of prophetic dualism, as a portion is interpreted and applied to Jesus by the writer of Hebrews (

Hebrews 1:3-5

How does it inform?

The first sentence of this verse is applied to Jesus by the Hebrews writer. Interestingly, the very next sentence could never be applied to Jesus since he was without sin.

Does it apply? Yes

what is man that you are mindful of him, and the son of man that you care for him? Yet you have made him a little lower than the heavenly beings and crowned him with glory and honor. You have given him dominion over the works of your hands; you have put all things under his feet,

what is man or the son of man that you [God] pay him any mind? Nevertheless, you have made him lower than the heavenly beings and crowned him with glory and honor, having given him dominion over your creation – putting all things under his feet.

A song of David that praises God’s creation and repeats the refrain, “O Lord, our Lord, how majestic is your name in all the earth!” (vss 1 and 9)

Most of this is quoted by and applied to Jesus by the writer of Hebrews (

Hebrews 2:5-9

How does it inform?

David’s song, applicable and sung by the children of Israel for possibly hundreds of years, is later applied (just this portion) to Jesus by the writer of Hebrews.

Does it apply? Yes

Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Therefore, God will give you a sign: the virgin will give birth to a son and call him Immanuel.
God (through Isaiah) is telling King Ahaz the fate of his son, but this verse, in particular, is also interpreted by the inspired writer Matthew to apply to Jesus, son of Mary (
Matthew 1:21-23
How does it inform?

Isaiah is speaking to King Ahaz in a much broader context about his son, but these two sentences are applied directly to Jesus’ birth about 700 years later by Matthew.

Does it apply? Yes


When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.

When Israel was young, I [God] loved him, and out of Egypt I called [saved] him.

This chapter appears to begin a distinct prophecy from God (through Hosea).  The personification of the nation of Israel – God’s chosen people – is not at all unique in the Old Testament.  After referring to the love for His people and His saving them from bondage in Egypt, there is a rebuke of their behavior in return, “The more they were called, the more they went away; they kept sacrificing to the Baals and burning offerings to idols” (vs 2).  The prophecy continues recounting their history and specifically calling out God’s “kindness” (vs 4) toward them and their rebellion against Him (“the people are bent on turning away from me” vs 7).

Matthew also interprets this verse only to apply to Jesus and the fact that they had to flee to Egypt after his birth (

Matthew 2:13-15

How does it inform?

The prophet Hosea delivers a chapter-long rebuke and judgement for the nation of Isreal. He begins with this statement that accurately describes Israel as a chosen people that were delivered by God from Egyptian bondage. Matthew applies only the second part of this sentence to Jesus and the family’s return from Egypt after fleeing there to avoid Herod’s edict to kill all the first-born males.

Does it apply? Yes

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