Invitations to ‘call on the name of the Lord’ are often extended by preachers and especially, it seems, by tele-evangelists. This may be at the end of their sermon when they invite the audience to recite a prayer, often referred to (but not in Scripture) as the “Sinner’s Prayer”. Often, the only passage associated with this phrase “call on the name of the Lord” is Romans 10:13 and we’ll start there, but there are more to look at!

It seems few will raise the other New Testament passages that inform on this topic. For example, they start with Romans 10:13 and then jump to other Old Testament passages. Or, they start with Romans 10:13 and just admit that Scripture nowhere actually shows it happening. That’s true enough – in all of the conversion accounts, Scripture never shows it! These are classic presuppositional Scripture weighting. Sadly, they won’t deal with all Scripture, but rather cling to a presupposed doctrine based on a single verse.

So what does it mean to call on the name of the Lord? Is it a prayer or something else?

how Scripture answers "What does it mean to ‘call on the name of the Lord?’"

an answer short on commentary and long on Scripture as footnoted1 | please contribute with your comment at the bottom

Scripture very clearly defines what it means to “call on the name of the Lord”2,3. It may be one of the greatest (and simplest) examples of Scripture interpreting Scripture. We can read one passage1 and wonder a little about what it means exactly, and find two more2,3 that wonderfully define the first in perfect harmony!

Under the new covenant, calling on the name of the Lord is directly connected to being baptized for remission of sins2,3 and follows one’s hearing and belief in the gospel (of truth)1,2,3. God hears all who call on His name in this way5 and responds by setting them apart with His Spirit, as He promised3.

The concept of ‘calling on the name of the Lord” is seen throughout all periods of Scripture – since shortly after creation6-to Abram7,– through the Mosaic law5 and into the first century Christian age1,2,3,4. David describes5 the mechanism (God’s word) and the result (God’s salvation) which clearly carries through to the first century activity as well1,4.

With all of these references to “call on the Lord”1,2,3,4,5,6,7 – Old and New Testament – we never read about it involving a prayer or a literal “call to Jesus” to come into one’s heart or life. Instead, what we read a lot about are praying people (“God-seekers” if you will) that are confronted with the gospel message who consistently respond in obedient faith.

the answer above is based on and footnoted with the following passages and their BSF application


For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.

Anyone that “calls on the Lord” will be saved.

Paul’s letter to Gentiles primarily, arguing their equal inclusion/access to God. However, he also speaks to his kinsmen (Jews) stating his desire for them to be saved as well (vs 1). He goes on to say they are zealous for God but without knowledge…specifically knowledge of His word (vs 8). He then says they need to believe with their heart and confess with their mouth in order to be saved – all of which seems to be summarized into “calling on the name of the Lord” in vs 10.

The verses immediately following lay out the process — “How then will they call on Him…”  (vs 14) and proceeds to walk through what leads someone to “call on the Lord.”  The prerequisites are first hearing (someone being sent to preach) and then believing/obeying the gospel message.

How does it inform?

It’s clear from the context that “calling on” is predicated on one hearing the gospel and believing – the result of which is salvation.

!! study note: context very important here !!

Does it apply? Yes


And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name.

Don’t delay, rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Paul is testifying to the Jews about his personal salvation while he was alone three days with Ananias.

How does it inform?

Paul, in his conversion, called on the name of the Lord (and washed away his sins) by being baptized.

Does it apply? Yes

And it shall come to pass that everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Peter quotes the prophet Joel that, “everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

Peter’s sermon on the Day of Pentecost proving that Jesus was the Christ and commanding them to repent and be baptized (vs 38).

How does it inform?

Peter’s sermon literally connects Joel’s prophesy with that very day, where the events that Joel had prophesied would come to pass (including, “everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved”). The people respond with, “What shall we do [to be saved]?” They could as well have asked, “How do we call upon the Lord?” Peter tells them to repent and be baptized, receiving the promise of the Spirit.

Does it apply? Yes


To this he called you through our gospel, so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.

God called the Thessalonians “through our gospel”.

The calling resulted in their salvation (vs 13), set apart by the Spirit and their belief in the truth.

How does it inform?

Reiterates Romans1 and what we see on the day of Pentecost3 in that the gospel is what is heard (input) and, from the full context, the Spirit sets apart (output).

Does it apply? Yes


The Lord is near to all who call on him, to all who call on him in truth.

God hears (“is near”) to anyone that calls on Him “in truth” or His word (

John 17:17

David’s song of praise (about 1,00BC).

How does it inform?

David connects “calling on Him” through His word to salvation (God’s response).

Does it apply? Yes


To Seth also a son was born, and he called his name Enosh. At that time people began to call upon the name of the Lord.

People began to call on the name of the Lord during the time of Seth/Enosh (son/grandson to Adam).

It offers no further explanation but does follow the contrasting of Cain’s worship/sacrifice with Abel’s, for which God “had regard” (and Cain’s “no regard”). It would seem that people (not just Cain and Abel) began offering worship (sacrifice) to God.

How does it inform?

There is acceptable worship and unacceptable worship. This passage doesn’t say exactly why one was regarded over the other, but suggests that all people began engaging in some form of worship (calling on the name of the Lord).

Does it apply? Yes

From there he moved to the hill country on the east of Bethel and pitched his tent, with Bethel on the west and Ai on the east. And there he built an altar to the Lord and called upon the name of the Lord.
He continued to the hill country east of Bethel and camped, between Bethel to the west and Ai to the east.  There he built an altar to God and called upon the name of the Lord (e.g. worshipped).

Abram has heeded God’s call to sojourn from Haran “to the land that I will show you” (vs 1).

How does it inform?

“Called on the name of the Lord” could mean several things here. After building the altar, it could mean that Abram prayed, but we see Abram leave and return again to place “where he had made an altar at the first” (3:4) in order to again, “call upon the name of the Lord.” As with the previous reference6 it’s more likely to simply mean that he worshipped God since Abram wouldn’t have needed to travel back to the altar in order to just pray.

Does it apply? Yes

Do you agree? If so, share this question and the Bible Study Framework with others.

If you know of some other verses or you have something to add to the verses already listed for this question please leave a comment below! We welcome the public discussion and will incorporate your input into the Framework above. We have nothing to hide and invite your help in considering all that God’s word has to say.

what do you think?

Send Us Your Question